I appreciate your comments, dear brother Jawaid,
Yes, i would agree with you.
If we clarify these following subjects then we have solved the problem completely:
- In normal situations that women can stand on their feet and do a job, then:
a) Should they (i.e. women) help financially their men if we consider 4:32 (they have a portion from what they earn, so they cannot keep all)?
b) Should men still get more share of inheritance by default?
c) Should be men still the one who pays "more" amount of money to buy house of family and pay expenses or men and women should pay fees equally in this situation?