Brother Jawaid, can we please get past the elementary-grade arguments? A clear example of repeating "Aaron said so and so to Moses..." Do we see the difference between what people say and what God says? If you missed it, this was rebutted as follows:
Here is the full name of Jesus recorded in Quran:
[3:45]: when the angels said, "O Mary, indeed Allah gives you good tidings of a word from Him, whose NAME (us'muhu) will be THE MESSIAH, JESUS, THE SON OF MARY - distinguished in this world and the Hereafter and among those brought near [to Allah].
Thus, Jesus' full name is given to him by God Himself. When Aaron said “O son of my mother”, is this the name of Moses given by God?
Now contrast 3:45 with 19:7: [He was told], "O Zechariah, indeed We give you good tidings of a boy whose NAME WILL BE JOHN. We have not assigned to any before [this] name."
Do you find the difference between the two names, though both names were assigned by God:
…Whose NAME (us'muhu) will be THE MESSIAH, JESUS, THE SON OF MARY – [3:45]
….Whose NAME WILL BE JOHN – [19:7]
Is Zachariya, a prophet, not a prominent figure in John’s life? Did God say, John, the Son of Zachariya to bring out Zachariya’s prominence as suggested by you and some others? Why?
Did God say anywhere in Quran with reference to any other prophet, so and so son of so and so? Why?
Why then, Jesus is singled out as “the son of Mary.” Isn’t it obvious that Quran is mentioning the exception?
Where is Moses’ mothers name next to Moses, “Moses son of …..” Is God giving the name “Moses son of ….” Or is it Aaron, just calling his brother affectionately, “O son of my mother”? Thus, I invite you to ponder over the verses of the book as well as your own thoughts, my brother.