If a woman is accused of fornication and producing an illegitimate child, will pointing to the child prove her innocence? Think about it!
That is the belief of the semi-christian muslims who read the Bible when they read the Quran.
19:27 Later, she returned to her people carrying the child with her. They said, "O Mary! You have come with an amazing thing (breaking the rules of the shrine).”
19:28 “O Sister of Aaron! Your father was not a bad man, nor was your mother a woman morally rebellious, nor did she ever oppose the system." [“Sister of Aaron”, See Author’s Note above. ‘Baghyya’ carries both meanings given at the end]
19:29 Then she pointed to him. They said, "How can we talk to one who is in the cradle, a young boy?"
[Mary and Joseph had lived in Bethelhem for years. ‘In the cradle’, idiomatically means a young person. In 19:31 he promises to establish the Divine System and set up the Just Economic Order. Can a child say that?]
19:30 But he spoke up, "Indeed, I am a servant of God. He has given me revelation and appointed me a Prophet.”
19:31 “He has made me blessed wherever I may be. He has enjoined upon me to establish the Divine System and help set up the Just Economic Order as long as I live.”
19:32 “And He has made me kind to my mother, and has not made me haughty, unblessed.”
19:33 “Peace was on me the day I was born, and the day I die, and the day I will be raised to life again." [19:15]
19:34 Such was Jesus, the son of Mary and this is the truth of this matter about whose nature they so deeply disagree.
Did Jesus, after he was pointed at by his mother, refute an allegation of fornication and his paternity, or is there something in his answer that tells us what his mother was accused of?
Dr Shabbir has put it in black and white and it does not mean she was unchaste, a fornicator, but one who followed the way of Allah and not the way of the rabbis. The rabbis saw this as rebelling against their rules, the Temple, we see it as following revelation.
Any sensible comments on this?