You wrote: “The verse is stating that Allah needs a mate in order to have a son, so by implication Mary needed a husband to bear Jesus.”
Very well. Was Mary not aware of this logic? Indeed she was? Isn’t it? She presented this precise logic to God, isn’t it? What was God’s response? Did God say, yes, you are right, God cannot create a person without father? You need a husband, I will arrange your husband, send it your way, he will take a knee and ask for your hand, don’t refuse, accept the proposal, then you will have Jesus. End of the story. In fact, there would have been no story, as there is none related to any other prophet.
But did it transpire this way or altogether in a different way? Absolutely, in a different way, leading to only and the only conclusion, Jesus was created without the help of a man.
Now ask yourself a question, why did this verse not revealed to Mary but 500+ years later to others? What is the relationship of the first and the third part of the verse with the middle part of the verse? What is the relationship of this to the preceding verse?