You wrote: “Mary was not accused of being unchaste, a fornicator, but going against the rules of the temple, read:…”
Br. Jawaid please review your thoughts and read the book carefully before you write. First, give me a verse which states that Mary went against the rules of the temple? There is no verse in Quran stating so.
Second, it is well understood that Arabic words have various meanings and shades, and the right meanings can be inferred if we let the Quran speak, say via Tasreef. There are some errors in the translation of Lughat you provided.
The Arabic root letters bā ghayn yā, depending upon the grammatical construction, bring forth multitudes of meanings, fundamental meanings being: to seek, to desire, to endeavor; to be suitable/unsuitable; to act wrongfully; to pursue something exceeding the bounds and limits, etc. When it is used with reference to a female in Quran, it only refers to sexual misconduct beyond bounds. For example 24:33:
[24:33]: “… And do not compel your young girls to prostitution (l-bighāi – the prostitution, genitive masculine noun) themselves, if they desire chastity, to seek [thereby] the temporary interests of worldly life.
With reference to the topic under discussion, the form of this word is “baghiyyan = accusative masculine noun, meaning -fornication, adultery, prostitution,” and is used only twice in Quran:
[19:20]: She said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste (a fornicator, an adulterer, a prostitute) ?"
This exact word is used in [19:28]:
[19:28]: O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother unchaste (a fornicator, an adulterer, a prostitute)."
Thus, Mary had no man in her life, else people would have known it and not accused her of unchaste behavior. This is absolutely clear without an iota of doubt. There is no "going against temple rules" here. Period.