Our Beacon Forum

Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
By:Dawood, USA
Date: Thursday, 21 December 2017, 8:00 pm

Birth of Jesus

The question how could Mary had a child without a male partner is a legitimate and pertinent given our understanding how God’s law of reproduction works. This is not a new question, in fact it was posed by Mary herself in 19:20 when she heard the extraordinary news of a Pure boy. My understanding is that Quran has the relevant answers to such questions. Thus, I will strictly adhere to Quran, its grammar, context, and Tasreef methodology in the following analysis. The verses related to Mary and Jesus are spread at many places in Quran, I will begin with Chap 9, Mary, and will then bring in other verses to support my argument.

It is bit long, please hold your horses until you have read and understood all arguments. You are welcome to question and discard my arguments in favor of better ones. I only ask you to be clear in your response, one or at most a couple of arguments at a time, and please be patient as I have some travel plans this holiday season and may not be able to respond in timely fashion. I will take up your points one by one when I return at the end of the first week of January.

[19:19-20]: He said, "I am only the messenger of your Lord to give you a boy, PURE." She said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been UNCHASTE?"

1. This boy is not an ordinary boy, rather he is called “Pure=Zakiya.” Why is this boy “Pure” while no other person is depicted in this way? Thus, this boy is unique by birth, Pure by birth. All other people are instructed to acquire this purity [91:9], while this boy is PURE to begin with. Isn’t it amazing!!!

2. Mary is asking the same question we are asking today. Now let see how God responds.

[19:21]: He (the spirit) said, "Thus [it will be]; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me, and the reason is We will make him a sign to the people and a mercy from Us. And it is a matter [already] decreed.' "

3. In 19:21 God did not say to Mary “ yes, I will arrange for you a man, husband, etc.”, rather His reply is: It is easy for Me and that this is already decreed to happen. She was not given any choice in the matter. It is very clear, God has asserted His Extraordinary Authority and Power. Otherwise, this was a good place to say, yes, you will have a husband, etc.

4. In 19:21 what is easy for God? Is God boasting about His ability to arrange a husband for Mary? Is arranging a husband such a difficult task that God says it is easy for Him? It is abundantly clear from the masculine pronoun “huwa” in 19:21 that God is referring to the creation of a Pure Boy without a male partner being easy for Him.

5. Two reasons are given for this PURE boy: (i) a sign to people, and (ii) mercy from God. In 23:50, both Jusus and his mother Mary are called “a sign”. Why is it that Mary and her son are “sign” of Allah but, Mary’s husband, if any, is NOT?

6. Further, If I correctly understand, no other prophet is depicted as a “sign” to people? Why Mary and her son to be a “sign” to people?

7. So what is this “sign” and what does it mean to be a “sign” from God? In 25:37, God states, “...We drowned the people of Noah, thus, We made them for mankind a SIGN.” Therefore, Sign is essentially a visual example, a visual depiction of God’s powers. In this respect, God creating a person without a male partner is a clear sign of His Powers, visible to all at the time as well as to us today.

[19:22]: Thus, she conceived him, and she withdrew with him to a remote place.

8. Isn’t it very clear from the dialogue in 19:21 God using His extraordinary powers lived up to what He decreed, thus, the result in 19:22? We will see how the conception took place at the end of this article.

[19:23]: And the pains of childbirth drove her to the trunk of a palm tree. She said, "Oh, I wish I had died before this and was in oblivion, forgotten."

9. She is enduring childbirth pain, where is her husband, if any? Nowhere in sight anywhere. If husband is there as claimed, why is he absent to help her?

[19:24]: Thus/so/at this, a male voice called her from below her, "Do not grieve; your Lord has provided beneath you a stream.

10. This means Mary did not know the area well. One can also imagine a scenario her supposed husband might have gone to check the area and he might have shouted back to her about the news of a water stream. He must be close by at most a couple of hundred yards away for her to hear him. But is this scenario credible? Why did God not put him in the picture at this stage, if he is indeed around?

[19:25-26]: And shake toward you the trunk of the palm tree; it will drop upon you ripe, fresh dates. So eat and drink and be contented. And if you see from among humanity anyone, say, 'Indeed, I have vowed to the Most Merciful abstention, so I will not speak today to [any] man.' "

11. Mary is in labor. Her supposed husband is shouting all good news to her, but not coming to help her in the delivery of the baby, nor helping her to shake the tree for dates. He is simply suggesting her, you eat, you drink, you shake the tree, and you be contented, I am not going to help you in any way. In fact, this husband is not even going with her to the people, rather saying you do it all, but don’t speak to people you encounter. Is this a behavior of a husband when his wife is in labor? Of course not, thus, the above scenario of her husband being around is not credible.

[19:27-28]: Then she came with him to her people, carrying him (taḥmiluhu). They said, "O Mary, you have certainly done a thing unprecedented/unheard of/amazingly impossible. O sister of Aaron, your father was not an evil man, nor was your mother unchaste."

12. Note, Mary alone comes back carrying the baby (unmistakable Arabic taḥmiluhu) and not her supposed husband.

13. Then, the blame game begins, her people charging her of unchaste behavior. Was it not a good time that her husband, if any, shows up and owns the baby? Obviously, there is no husband here. Thus, in that helplessness, how to convince them, she does this.

[19:29-30]: So she pointed to him. They said, "How can we speak to one who is in the cradle a child?" [Jesus] said, "Indeed, I am the servant of Allah. He has given me the Scripture and made me a prophet.

14. Thus, the baby Jesus speaks, but what kind of speech is it? He is not asking them stop blaming her, I have a father named so and so. He simply states, he is a born prophet, a PURE boy. If this is not a sign of God, a visual depiction of God’s Powers, nothing else would ever be.

15. Further, this speaking of Jesus while in cradle is mentioned in 3:46 as well: “He will speak to the people in the cradle and in maturity and will be of the righteous." Some may say, it is childhood and maturity. Is this credible? What is so great about God stating speaking in childhood and maturity? Children do speak, sin’t it? It is Babies who don’t speak in cradles, thus, if a baby does speak in a cradle, that too like Jesus is doing in 19:30, THAT IS NEWS WORTHY, a CLEAR SIGN FROM GOD.

[19:32]: And dutiful/kind/good to MY MOTHER, and He has not made me a wretched tyrant.

For a moment I transgress and quote: [19:14]: “And dutiful/kind/good to his PARENTS (biwālidayhi), and he was not a disobedient tyrant.”

16. Please note, prophet Yahya (John, the Baptist) is dutiful to his PARENTS in 19:14, but Jesus is dutiful to his MOTHER ONLY in 19:32. Don’t you see the contrast. If Jesus had a biological father when this dialogue took place, why was his father not included with his mother in 19:32? What bad act his supposed father did that Jesus did not consider good behavior toward his own biological father? IT IS OBVIOUS, JESUS HAD NO FATHER.

[19”34]: That is Jesus, the son of Mary - the word of truth about which they are in dispute.

17. Another incredible statement, Jesus is the word of TRUTH. It is that TRUE word that God gave to Mary in 3:45: “… glad tidings of a word, whose name will be the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary…”

[19:35]: It is not [befitting] for Allah to take a son; exalted is He! When He decrees an affair, He only says to it, "Be," and it is.

18. The above is refutations of all allegations against God to have son. God is asserting His Powers and Authority once more by stating: When he decrees a matter, He only says to it, Be, and it starts happening. Please compare this “when He decrees a matter” with the statement “And it is a matter [already] decreed” in 19:21. Mary was merely informed of this decree just prior to this process taking effect. This Power and WILL of God is further elaborated in [3:47]:

[3:47]: She said, "My Lord, how will I have a child when no man has touched me?" [The angel] said, "Such is Allah ; HE CREATES WHAT HE WILLS. When He decrees a matter, He only says to it, 'BE,' AND IT IS.

Now we take some other verses discussing various aspects of the miraculous birth of Jesus.

What does it mean to be like Adam?

[3:59-60]: Indeed, the example of Jesus near/with Allah is like that of Adam. He created Him from dust; then HE SAID TO HIM, "BE," AND HE WAS. The truth is from your Lord, so do not be among the doubters.

19. God is clearly establishing His Powers of creating what He Wills via two examples: Adam, He created from dust by just saying to it BE, and IT WAS, similarly, Jesus, He created without FATHER by simply saying, BE and IT WAS. This is further cemented in 3:60. (This is now my conjecture. Adam might have taken eras to get to the final shape, Jesus took around 9 months.)

20. This further demolishes all claims Jesus being a son of God, if Adam is not a son of God, then surely, Jesus cannot be either.

The above similarity between Jesus and Adam is further explained when we examine how the pregnancy of Mary started.

[15:28]: And [mention, O Muhammad], when your Lord said to the angels, "I will create a human being out of clay from an altered black mud. And when I have proportioned him and BREATHED INTO HIM OF MY SOUL/SPIRIT, then fall down to him in prostration."

[32:9]: Then He proportioned him and BREATHED INTO HIM FROM HIS SOUL/SPIRIT (wanafakha fīhi min rūḥihi) and made for you hearing and vision and hearts; little are you grateful.

Please note the highlighted phrases above along with the Arabic and then see the following:

[21:91]: And [mention] the one who guarded her chastity, so We BLEW INTO HER OF OUR SOUL/SPIRIT (fanafakhnā fīhā min rūḥinā) and We made her and her son a sign for the worlds.

[66:12]: And [the example of] Mary, the daughter of 'Imran, who guarded her chastity, so We BLEW INTO IT OF OUR SOUL/SPIRIT (fanafakhnā fīhi min rūḥinā), and she believed in the words of her Lord and His scriptures and was of the devoutly obedient.

21. Thus, the process of creating Adam and Jesus is essentially the same, i.e. God blowing His spirit/soul or some call it Divine Energy. Those who know the Arabic, the conception process is very clearly spelled out in 66:12.

My dear brothers and sisters, the above is what I understand from Quran about the birth of Jesus (peace be upon him).

Best Regards

Messages In This Thread

Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
Dawood, USA -- Thursday, 21 December 2017, 8:00 pm
Birth of Jesus (salutes to him)
Dr Shabbir, Florida -- Friday, 22 December 2017, 2:17 am
Re: Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
Tahir Canada -- Friday, 22 December 2017, 7:10 am
Re: Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
jawaid ahmed,uk -- Friday, 22 December 2017, 8:35 am
Re: Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
Shahid Islam -- Saturday, 23 December 2017, 2:05 am
Re: Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
Mubashir, Canada -- Saturday, 23 December 2017, 3:11 pm
Re: Birth of Jesus (peace be upon him)
dawood, usa -- Sunday, 24 December 2017, 5:44 pm