The facts are as follows about the false claim of the Jews to Palestine and Jerusalem. Not many people are aware of the information below. It would be appreciated if you could pass it on to your friends. Thank you.
LANGUAGE OF THE BIBLE ACCORDING TO THE FIRST CHURCH WHO COMPILED THE BIBLE: i.e. THE CATHOLIC CHURCH PROVES THAT THE JEWISH CLAIM TO PALESTINE IS FALSE!
The Bible is not a divine book according to the following submissions: The first Church in Christianity, i.e. Catholic Church, claims in their official documents written under the auspicious of the Pope Paul VI (1965) and Pope John XXXIII (1959):
“Bible, Manuscripts of the. Copies of the Biblical text, written by hand. […] NONE OF THE ORIGINAL MANUSCRIPTS WRITTEN BY THE INSPIRED AUTHORS THEMSELVES (AUTOGRAPHS) IS KNOWN TO EXIST, […].” (Catholic Bible p. 30) (Authorised by Pope Paul VI (1965) and Pope John XXXIII (1959)
THE COMBINED MAINSTREAM PROTESTANT CHURCHES CLAIMS:
“SINCE NO AUTOGRAPH OF ANY BOOK OF THE BIBLE HAS SURVIVED, [...]”. (New Bible Dictionary First Edition, 1978, p. 151. And in the second edition 1988, it appears on page 140)
The above statements by the two mainstream churches clearly nullify their own books as being authentic. The Language of Moses as stated by the Jews and Christians is supposed to be Hebrew. Furthermore, they make the following explicit statements from their most authentic sources:
Peake’s Commentary states this very important point: ‘the Bible in the 8th‑9th century A.D’ proves it came into existence AFTER AL-QUR’ÂN! Jews and Christians claim that Moses spoke Hebrew, and the Old Testament was revealed in Hebrew: however, Hebrew as a language was only completed in the tenth century of the Christian era. That is 1,000 years after Jesus!
It should also be known that the name of the language Hebrew is a Greek word (See Peake’s Commentary on the Bible. 1919, p. 34) and not a word originated from the Children of Isrâ’îl. What does this mean? It means that not one word of the Old Testament could have been spoken by Moses, as no prophet that came to the Children of Isrâ’îl spoke Hebrew!
According to Peake’s Commentary, referring to the Septuagint, he said that the ‘translators were just as ignorant of the meaning as were the Massoretes who vocalised the Bible in the 8th‑9th century A.D’ (See Peake’s Commentary on the Bible, 1962 edition, 49c, page 63 ‑)
The New Bible Dictionary of the Protestants states:
“A further implication is that Moses would have an Egyptian education, one of the best available in his day.” (The Protestant New Bible Dictionary 1988, p. 305)
Definitely Pharaoh would never have spoken with Moses in the language of the slaves! After all Moses grew up in the house of Pharaoh from a baby and could never have spoken any language but what Pharaoh spoke! (Even if we want to agree that prophet Mûsâ (Moses) spoke Hebrew, then we must also agree that the communication with Pharaoh must have been in the Egyptian language).
Another important point: Is it not strange that “Moses” is claimed to have appeared in the year 4004 BC? Yet, the name of the book is claimed to be the Bible (Byblos) which is ‘derived through Latin from the Greek’ language! (New Bible Dictionary Second impression, 1988, p. 137)
THEREFORE, THERE IS NO ORIGINAL OLD TESTAMENT IN THE WORLD! AND THE CLAIM OF THE JEWS TO PALESTINE IS ALSO FALSE!
 , The Protestants came into existence 1,228 years after the first Church, (i.e. in the 16th century) claim that the Old Testament contains only 39 books. (Refer-New Bible Dictionary Second impression, 1988, p. 138). The Catholic Church, the original compilers of the Bible claim that there are 45 Books!