Razi bhai, let me state once more, I am not a blind follower of any person, scholar, imam, ….., rather I use my mind to understand what is in the Quran, how it explains itself, what it possibly mean, …. While staying very close and within the bounds of the language, tasreef, context, etc. Unfortunately, what I have seen from most of my brothers on the forum who are objecting to my understanding is nothing but conjecture based on poor understanding of the verses in question, neglecting the language in many cases.
Your observations are easily answered within the book. In vast majority of cases, the Quranic commands are either preceded or followed by the purpose of such commands. In line with this observation, the last part of [29:45] is providing the “purpose” as to why Salat need be performed, the remembrance of God being the ultimate purpose. Your observation (1) can be applied to any such command, for example Saum/fasting. Was prophet not a “mutaqee” before the verses of Saum? Obviously, he was, and the purpose explained in verses of saum is not meant to indicate that prophet is not a mutaqee. Same is the case in 29:45.
Your second observation relate to the method of prayer. What method is not recorded in Quran? Three major part of the salat (Qiam/standing, Ruku/bowing, Sujood/prostration) well recorded in Quran. Are these new? No, starting from prophet Ibrahim, all prophets were doing it. What is to be read in salat? It has two parts, the requirement to recite Quran is already mentioned in 29:45 which is mandatory. The other part is one’s own Dua/supplication to God as prophet Zackariya did in salat. This is open, anyone can do it as per his/her need.
Your third observation is easily answered from the explanation just above. Do people read Quran, do qiam, ruku, and sujood in their salat? If they do, then the form/method is fully preserved and will continue to be so until the end. What better method of preservation you desire? What distortion has occurred in Qiam/ruku/sujood? What distortion can possibly occur in these three elements?
All so called objections raised against the Quran are answered by the Quran itself, staying true to the book, not trivializing it, not generalizing it, or bending and stretching the language unnecessarily. Such generalizations bring more objections which cannot be countered by ANY explanation.
Where is tawatur refuted by God in His Quran as you claimed?