I do not write the below out of arrogance or for trying to impose myself upon people who are more learned than me; I write this as I have hitherto not been able to satify myself fully on the ruling of Our Beacon Team on polygamy. Of course, there is a greater chance I would be wrong, but then that is the purpose of putting forth this debate, that I may be able to clear my mind. I therefore, humbly request the moderators to kindly let this debate run, and not take it as 'contradictory' to the Word of God, for it is never my intent to deny the Quran.
Below, I have given a couple of arguments; there are further questions in my mind but would like to proceed gradually if this topic is allowed to run.
A) The Quran clearly prohibits everything haram; there are clear verses prohibiting ills such as wine, adultery, stealing, charging interest, gambling, etc. Nowhere do we have to rely on other verses vaguely connected to these ills of society to say they are forbidden. For some of the ills such as drinking and gambling, Allah (SWT) says:
2:219 They ask you (O Messenger) concerning alcohol, intoxicants, games of chance, and gambling and money earned without labor. Say, “There is great detriment in these things as well as some benefits for mankind. But the detriment of them is much greater than the benefit of them. They drag down the individual and collective social potential.” And they ask you what they should give. Say, “All that is surplus.” Thus God makes His messages plain for you, that you may reflect.
In this verse Allah has even mentioned there are a few benefits in these things yet the ills far surpass the good; despite this we have no difficulty in proclaiming these things as haram as the verdict is quite clear. As such we can say Allah has clearly explained what is lawful and what is not.
My objection is: While there is no verse that clearly says one can take more than one wife generally, why is there no verse clearly prohibiting polygamy if it is an ill of the society, just as there are verses of prohibition against other things haram? Why do we have to force out a meaning from verses that can have a far broader and abstract a meaning?
B) None of the things declared haram have been declared halal under certain conditions. The Quran has clearly drawn a line between Halal and Haram, and the two do not mix. There are no verses that declare drinking of alcoholic beverages, or committing acts of lewdness becomes halaal under certain conditions.
My objection: Even though I totally agree with Brother Shabbir's translation and interpretation of Verse # 4:3, how do we use this Ayat to declare polygamy under normal conditions haram? In my opinion, we can do this if we produce a parallel example from the Quran that declares something Haram as Halal under certain conditions. If there is any such example, please point out to me so i may correct my views.
Seeker of Truth,