Thank you Sir for the reply,
If things have settled down, I will try and elaborate a bit on my thinking. This question had two sources: 1) the fact that I was asked this directly from someone else 2) being asked led me to wonder that, while I understand the reasoning behind updating the terminology of the Qur'an to reflect its timeless nature, I couldn't help but wonder at the fact that this can only be done in translations (as far as I understand). For example, you Sir are convenienced by your capacity to directly write the meaning of the verses in a modern context for a translation; whereas no one is allowed to change the original Arabic of the Qur'an. It was this discrepancy that led me to seek to understand the reasoning behind the process for myself as well. Do breadth nuance into my understanding where appropriate.
And I hope I don't have to start writing disclaimers that I don't have evil intentions in my posts; I would appreciate it if we could have a bit more trust in each other than to reach extreme conclusions about one others intentions.